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The period designated as the Great Recession, characterized by a significant global market decline, officially spanned from late 2007 to mid-2009.
Answer: True
Explanation: The source confirms that the Great Recession, a period of global market decline, occurred from late 2007 to mid-2009.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) characterized the Great Recession as the least severe economic downturn since the Great Depression.
Answer: False
Explanation: The IMF concluded that the Great Recession was, in fact, the most severe economic and financial meltdown experienced globally since the Great Depression.
In the United States, the Great Recession officially commenced in December 2007 and concluded in June 2009, encompassing approximately nineteen months of economic contraction.
Answer: True
Explanation: The National Bureau of Economic Research (NBER) officially dated the U.S. recession as beginning in December 2007 and ending in June 2009, a duration of nineteen months.
A technical definition of an economic recession involves a minimum of three consecutive quarters of negative Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth.
Answer: False
Explanation: While often associated with prolonged contraction, the technical definition of a recession typically requires two consecutive quarters of negative GDP growth, not three.
Robert Kuttner proposed that 'The Great Recession' was an accurate descriptor, emphasizing its cyclical and self-correcting nature.
Answer: False
Explanation: Robert Kuttner argued that 'The Great Recession' was a misnomer, suggesting terms like 'The Lesser Depression' or 'The Great Deflation' were more fitting due to the decade's persistent economic stagnation.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) defines a global recession solely based on quarterly GDP contractions in major economies.
Answer: False
Explanation: The IMF defines a global recession by a decline in annual real world GDP per capita. While quarterly data is relevant, the primary definition is annual.
According to the IMF, how severe was the Great Recession compared to previous economic downturns?
Answer: It was the most severe economic and financial meltdown since the Great Depression.
Explanation: The IMF characterized the Great Recession as the most severe global economic and financial crisis experienced since the Great Depression.
Robert Kuttner proposed alternative terms for the economic situation, suggesting it was more accurately described as:
Answer: The Lesser Depression or The Great Deflation
Explanation: Robert Kuttner argued for terms like 'The Lesser Depression' or 'The Great Deflation' to better capture the prolonged economic stagnation characteristic of the period, rather than the term 'Great Recession'.
The IMF's definition of a global recession is based on a decline in:
Answer: Annual real world GDP per capita.
Explanation: The IMF defines a global recession by a decrease in annual real world GDP per capita.
The primary trigger for the Great Recession was identified as the bursting of the United States housing bubble, which commenced around 2005.
Answer: True
Explanation: The bursting of the U.S. housing bubble, beginning approximately in 2005, is cited as a principal trigger for the subsequent Great Recession.
The subprime mortgage crisis occurred subsequent to the main phase of the Great Recession, primarily during 2009-2010.
Answer: False
Explanation: The subprime mortgage crisis was a precursor and integral part of the Great Recession, occurring primarily in 2007-2008, not after the main phase.
The period preceding the Great Recession was characterized by stagnant asset prices and declining economic demand.
Answer: False
Explanation: The years leading up to the Great Recession were marked by a significant boom in asset prices and a corresponding surge in economic demand, not stagnation.
Mortgage-backed securities (MBS), often backed by subprime mortgages, contributed to the crisis because they offered low yields and were heavily regulated.
Answer: False
Explanation: MBS contributed to the crisis due to their high yields (relative to safer assets) and the widespread defaults on the underlying subprime mortgages when the housing bubble burst, leading to devalued securities.
Ben Bernanke identified excessive regulation and overly cautious lending by traditional banks as key private sector vulnerabilities contributing to the crisis.
Answer: False
Explanation: Ben Bernanke identified deficiencies in corporate risk management, excessive leverage, and reliance on unstable funding as key private sector vulnerabilities, not excessive regulation or cautious lending.
The shadow banking system, consisting of regulated depository institutions, played a minor role in the crisis due to its limited scale.
Answer: False
Explanation: The shadow banking system, comprising non-depository institutions operating with less regulation, played a significant and destabilizing role due to its substantial scale and inherent vulnerabilities.
The bursting of the U.S. housing bubble slowed the economy by reducing private residential investment and slowing consumption fueled by housing wealth.
Answer: True
Explanation: The decline in housing prices led to reduced residential investment and a decrease in consumption, as the perceived wealth from housing diminished, thereby impacting aggregate demand.
According to one narrative, house flippers contributed to the crisis by taking out large numbers of loans backed by subprime mortgages.
Answer: False
Explanation: While house flippers were involved, the narrative suggests they often had good credit and took out mortgages that later defaulted en masse, contributing to the crisis by damaging markets after the bubble burst, rather than solely taking subprime loans.
Derivatives like credit default swaps (CDS) were heavily regulated, preventing speculators from betting on mortgage security defaults.
Answer: False
Explanation: Credit default swaps (CDS) and other complex derivatives were largely unregulated, allowing for significant speculative activity and creating systemic risk when underlying mortgage securities defaulted.
Which event is identified as a primary trigger for the Great Recession?
Answer: The bursting of the United States housing bubble.
Explanation: The bursting of the U.S. housing bubble, beginning around 2005, is widely identified as the primary trigger event that precipitated the Great Recession.
What characterized the subprime mortgage crisis phase of the Great Recession?
Answer: The collapse or bailout of several investment banks due to declining values of mortgage-backed securities.
Explanation: The subprime mortgage crisis phase (2007-2008) was marked by the severe devaluation of mortgage-backed securities, leading to the collapse or government-assisted rescue of major investment banks.
What was a key characteristic of the U.S. shadow banking system in the years leading up to the Great Recession?
Answer: It grew substantially without the same regulatory oversight as traditional banks, making it vulnerable.
Explanation: The shadow banking system experienced significant expansion while operating under less stringent regulatory oversight compared to traditional banks, contributing to its vulnerability and role in the crisis.
How did mortgage-backed securities (MBS) contribute to the financial instability?
Answer: They lost value when the U.S. housing bubble burst, leading to widespread defaults and devaluing the securities held by banks.
Explanation: When the U.S. housing bubble burst, the value of MBS plummeted due to defaults on the underlying mortgages, causing significant losses for institutions holding these securities and destabilizing the financial system.
Ben Bernanke identified which of the following as a key private sector vulnerability contributing to the crisis?
Answer: Deficiencies in corporate risk management and excessive use of leverage.
Explanation: Ben Bernanke cited deficiencies in corporate risk management practices and the excessive use of leverage by financial institutions as critical private sector vulnerabilities that exacerbated the crisis.
The 'shadow banking system' is significant because it involved:
Answer: Non-depository financial institutions that lacked the regulatory safeguards of traditional banks.
Explanation: The significance of the shadow banking system lies in its composition of non-depository financial entities that operated with fewer regulatory safeguards than traditional banks, contributing to systemic risk.
What role did unregulated derivatives like Credit Default Swaps (CDS) play in the crisis?
Answer: They allowed speculators to bet on defaults, creating complex, risky exposures for sellers like AIG.
Explanation: Unregulated CDS allowed for speculative bets on mortgage security defaults, creating intricate and risky exposures for sellers, such as AIG, which faced collapse when defaults surged.
Which of the following best describes the role of house flippers in one narrative of the crisis?
Answer: They defaulted on their debt en masse after the housing bubble burst, damaging markets.
Explanation: In one narrative, house flippers contributed to the crisis by defaulting on their substantial debts after the housing bubble collapsed, thereby damaging local housing markets and financial institutions.
The U.S. Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission (FCIC) concluded that the crisis was unavoidable due to systemic market forces beyond anyone's control.
Answer: False
Explanation: The majority report of the FCIC concluded that the crisis was avoidable, attributing it to failures in financial regulation, corporate governance, and excessive risk-taking.
Peter J. Wallison, dissenting from the FCIC report, blamed the crisis primarily on lax lending standards encouraged by U.S. housing policy, particularly involving Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac.
Answer: True
Explanation: Peter J. Wallison's dissenting opinion identified U.S. housing policy and the actions of Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac as the primary drivers of the crisis due to their role in promoting lax lending standards.
G20 leaders in November 2008 cited inadequate risk appreciation and due diligence by market participants as key causes of the crisis.
Answer: True
Explanation: The G20 declaration cited factors including market participants seeking higher yields without adequate risk appreciation and a failure in due diligence as significant contributors to the crisis.
Ben Bernanke pointed to public sector vulnerabilities such as statutory gaps between regulators and inadequate crisis management capabilities.
Answer: True
Explanation: Bernanke highlighted public sector issues including regulatory gaps, conflicts between agencies, and insufficient crisis management frameworks as contributing factors.
Increased income inequality and wage stagnation may have encouraged families to take on more household debt to maintain their living standards, thus fueling the housing bubble.
Answer: True
Explanation: Growing income disparities and stagnant wages may have compelled households to increase debt levels to sustain consumption, thereby contributing to the inflation of the housing bubble.
The inflow of foreign savings into the U.S. mortgage market, driven by the U.S. trade deficit, helped to inflate the housing bubble.
Answer: True
Explanation: A substantial influx of foreign capital, facilitated by the U.S. trade deficit, flowed into the mortgage market, contributing to the overvaluation of housing prices and the subsequent bubble.
Brooksley E. Born faced no significant opposition when she proposed regulations for derivatives as head of the CFTC.
Answer: False
Explanation: Brooksley E. Born encountered substantial opposition from influential government officials when she proposed regulating derivatives, leading to the withdrawal of her proposals.
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (1999) increased the separation between commercial and investment banks, thereby reducing systemic risk.
Answer: False
Explanation: The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act repealed parts of the Glass-Steagall Act, facilitating the merger of commercial and investment banks, which some economists argue increased systemic risk.
The SEC's relaxation of lending standards for top investment banks in 2004 is cited as a proximate cause for increased risk-taking leading up to the crisis.
Answer: True
Explanation: The Securities and Exchange Commission's (SEC) decision in 2004 to relax net capital rules for investment banks is considered a significant factor that enabled increased leverage and risk-taking.
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, enacted in 1999, is considered by some economists, like Joseph Stiglitz, to have contributed to the crisis by deregulating the banking sector.
Answer: True
Explanation: The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, by allowing the consolidation of commercial and investment banking, is viewed by economists such as Joseph Stiglitz as a contributing factor to the crisis through deregulation.
According to the majority report of the U.S. Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission (FCIC), the crisis was primarily caused by:
Answer: Failures in financial regulation and excessive risk-taking.
Explanation: The FCIC majority report identified systemic failures in financial regulation, breakdowns in corporate governance leading to excessive risk-taking, and inadequate oversight as primary causes of the crisis.
Peter J. Wallison, in his dissent to the FCIC report, identified which factor as the primary cause of the crisis?
Answer: U.S. housing policy, including the actions of Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac.
Explanation: Peter J. Wallison's dissenting view posited that U.S. housing policy, particularly the mandates and practices of Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac, was the principal cause of the crisis due to its encouragement of lax lending standards.
Which of the following was cited by G20 leaders as a factor contributing to the crisis?
Answer: Market participants seeking higher yields without adequate risk appreciation.
Explanation: G20 leaders identified that market participants pursued higher yields without sufficient appreciation of associated risks and failed to exercise adequate due diligence, contributing to the crisis.
The inflow of foreign savings into the U.S. mortgage market was argued to have contributed to the housing bubble by:
Answer: Contributing to overvalued housing prices.
Explanation: The substantial inflow of foreign savings into the U.S. mortgage market is argued to have fueled the housing bubble by increasing liquidity and contributing to the overvaluation of housing prices.
Which U.S. legislation, allowing the merger of commercial and investment banks, is blamed by some economists for increasing risk?
Answer: The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (1999)
Explanation: The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999 is cited by some economists as having contributed to increased financial risk by dismantling barriers between commercial and investment banking.
Which of the following actions by Brooksley E. Born faced significant opposition from key government officials like Alan Greenspan and Robert Rubin?
Answer: Her proposal to regulate derivatives.
Explanation: Brooksley E. Born's initiative to propose regulations for derivatives as head of the CFTC encountered strong opposition from influential figures such as Alan Greenspan and Robert Rubin.
According to Austrian economists, what action by the Federal Reserve potentially contributed to the crisis?
Answer: Lowering the federal funds rate to 1% for an extended period, injecting easy credit.
Explanation: Austrian economists argue that the Federal Reserve's prolonged period of maintaining the federal funds rate at 1% injected excessive liquidity, fostering an unsustainable credit boom that contributed to the crisis.
The FCIC's majority report identified which of the following as a cause of the crisis?
Answer: Inadequate crisis management capabilities of policymakers.
Explanation: The FCIC majority report cited inadequate crisis management capabilities among policymakers as one of the contributing factors to the severity and handling of the financial crisis.
Which of these factors was NOT cited by Ben Bernanke as a public sector vulnerability contributing to the crisis?
Answer: Reliance on unstable short-term funding.
Explanation: Reliance on unstable short-term funding was identified by Ben Bernanke as a private sector vulnerability, not a public sector one. Public sector vulnerabilities included regulatory gaps, inter-agency conflicts, and inadequate crisis management.
The argument regarding foreign savings suggests that their inflow into the U.S. mortgage market was driven by:
Answer: A large U.S. trade deficit.
Explanation: The significant inflow of foreign savings into the U.S. mortgage market was largely attributed to the substantial U.S. trade deficit, which created an excess supply of foreign capital seeking investment.
The Housing and Community Development Act of 1992 is cited as potentially encouraging lax lending by:
Answer: Mandating increasing percentages of affordable housing loan purchases by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac.
Explanation: The Housing and Community Development Act of 1992 mandated that Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac increase their purchases of affordable housing loans, which some argue encouraged more lenient lending standards.
What was the significance of Brooksley E. Born's proposed regulations for derivatives?
Answer: They were withdrawn due to pressure from key government officials concerned about market impact.
Explanation: Brooksley E. Born's proposed regulations for derivatives were withdrawn following significant pressure from high-ranking government officials who feared adverse effects on financial markets.
The collapse of Lehman Brothers in September 2008 led to stability in the inter-bank loan market as confidence in financial institutions increased.
Answer: False
Explanation: The collapse of Lehman Brothers triggered widespread panic and instability in the inter-bank loan market, severely eroding confidence in financial institutions.
Immediate consequences of the global recession included a sharp increase in international trade and falling unemployment rates.
Answer: False
Explanation: Immediate consequences included a sharp decline in international trade and a significant rise in unemployment rates globally.
What major event in September 2008 triggered widespread panic in the inter-bank loan market?
Answer: The collapse of Lehman Brothers.
Explanation: The bankruptcy filing of Lehman Brothers in September 2008 sent shockwaves through the financial system, causing a severe panic in the inter-bank loan market.
Which of the following was NOT an immediate consequence of the global recession?
Answer: A significant increase in global GDP growth.
Explanation: Immediate consequences included a decline in international trade, rising unemployment, and falling commodity prices; a significant increase in global GDP growth was contrary to the recessionary environment.
Governments and central banks responded to the recession primarily by reducing government spending and raising interest rates.
Answer: False
Explanation: Governments and central banks primarily responded with fiscal and monetary stimulus initiatives aimed at stimulating the economy and mitigating financial risks, rather than austerity and rate hikes.
In September 2010, the IMF recommended that governments prioritize budget cuts over job creation and social safety nets.
Answer: False
Explanation: In September 2010, the IMF recommended that governments prioritize job creation and expanding social safety nets, even amidst pressure to implement austerity measures.
Poland was the only European Union member country that successfully avoided recession during the Great Recession.
Answer: True
Explanation: Poland was notably the sole member state of the European Union that managed to avoid recession during the global downturn.
Poland's avoidance of recession was attributed to its large mortgage market and high levels of bank lending.
Answer: False
Explanation: Poland's economic resilience was attributed to factors such as low levels of bank lending and a relatively small mortgage market, among other domestic and international economic conditions.
The Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) was established to provide direct financial aid to unemployed workers.
Answer: False
Explanation: TARP was primarily established to purchase troubled assets from financial institutions and inject capital into them, not to provide direct aid to unemployed workers.
China's stimulus package announced in November 2008 focused solely on infrastructure development.
Answer: False
Explanation: China's stimulus package included investments in infrastructure but also encompassed social welfare, housing, transportation, health, and education sectors.
European countries largely responded to the crisis by implementing strict austerity measures immediately following the 2008 collapse.
Answer: False
Explanation: European countries initially implemented measures such as bank bailouts and partial nationalization; strict austerity programs were generally adopted later in response to rising deficits.
The UK government's bank rescue package in October 2008 was valued at approximately £50 billion.
Answer: False
Explanation: The UK government's bank rescue package in October 2008 was valued at approximately £500 billion, encompassing liquidity provisions, capital injections, and guarantees.
The G20 became a key forum for international cooperation in managing the crisis, holding significant summits in Washington and London.
Answer: True
Explanation: The G20 emerged as a crucial platform for coordinating international responses to the crisis, marked by major summits in Washington (2008) and London (2009).
The IMF recommended focusing solely on reducing national debt, even if it meant cutting essential job creation programs.
Answer: False
Explanation: The IMF recommended prioritizing job creation and expanding social safety nets, advocating for investment in these areas even amidst fiscal pressures.
The Bank of Israel was among the last central banks to raise interest rates, doing so in March 2010.
Answer: False
Explanation: The Bank of Israel was among the first central banks to raise interest rates, doing so in August 2009, preceding others like the Reserve Bank of India in March 2010.
How did governments and central banks primarily respond to the recessionary conditions?
Answer: By implementing fiscal and monetary stimulus initiatives.
Explanation: Governments and central banks globally adopted fiscal stimulus packages and monetary policy adjustments to counteract the recession and stabilize financial markets.
What was a key recommendation made by the IMF in September 2010 regarding economic recovery?
Answer: Focus on job creation and expanding social safety nets.
Explanation: In September 2010, the IMF recommended that governments prioritize job creation and the expansion of social safety nets as crucial elements for fostering economic recovery.
What was the primary purpose of the Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) established in the U.S.?
Answer: To purchase troubled assets from financial institutions and inject capital.
Explanation: TARP was designed to stabilize the financial system by enabling the government to purchase troubled assets from financial institutions and inject capital into them.
China's response to the financial crisis involved a significant stimulus package primarily focused on:
Answer: Investing heavily in infrastructure, social welfare, and related areas.
Explanation: China's substantial stimulus package was directed towards infrastructure development, social welfare programs, housing, transportation, health, and industry to bolster its economy.
What was a common response by European countries to the financial crisis in the initial stages?
Answer: Partial nationalization of banks and government bailouts.
Explanation: Initial responses in European countries included measures such as partial nationalization of banks and government bailouts to stabilize the financial sector.
The G20 played a crucial role in managing the crisis by:
Answer: Acting as a forum for major economies to coordinate responses and pledge support.
Explanation: The G20 served as a vital international forum where major economies could coordinate policy responses, pledge financial support, and commit to collaborative actions to manage the global crisis.
The UK government's bank rescue package in October 2008 was valued at approximately:
Answer: £500 billion
Explanation: The UK government's comprehensive bank rescue package announced in October 2008 was valued at approximately £500 billion.
Which factor was cited as contributing to Poland's avoidance of recession?
Answer: Low levels of bank lending and a small mortgage market.
Explanation: Factors contributing to Poland's avoidance of recession included its relatively low levels of bank lending and a less developed mortgage market, among other economic characteristics.
What was the approximate value of China's stimulus package announced by the end of 2010?
Answer: RMB 4 trillion ($586 billion)
Explanation: By the end of 2010, China had announced a stimulus package valued at approximately RMB 4 trillion (equivalent to $586 billion USD).
What did the IMF recommend regarding unemployment and government spending in September 2010?
Answer: Expand social safety nets and generate job creation, even with pressure to cut spending.
Explanation: The IMF advised governments to prioritize job creation and the expansion of social safety nets, emphasizing their importance for long-term recovery, even when fiscal consolidation was being urged.
A 'balance sheet recession' occurs when businesses prioritize investment over paying down debt accumulated during a boom.
Answer: False
Explanation: A balance sheet recession describes a state where households or firms prioritize debt repayment over spending or investment due to high debt levels and falling asset values, leading to economic contraction.
The IMF suggested a link between rising income inequality and *increasing* demand within Western economies during the recessionary period.
Answer: False
Explanation: The IMF suggested a link between rising income inequality and *deflating* demand within Western economies, noting that extreme inequality levels had previously coincided with the years preceding the Great Depression.
The 'Minsky Moment' concept relates to financial crises triggered by prolonged stability leading to excessive risk-taking and leverage.
Answer: True
Explanation: A 'Minsky Moment' describes the point at which extended periods of financial stability foster complacency, leading to increased leverage and risk-taking, ultimately culminating in a sudden market collapse.
What is a 'balance sheet recession' as described in the context of household debt?
Answer: A state where households prioritize paying off debt over spending due to high debt levels and falling asset prices.
Explanation: A balance sheet recession occurs when households, burdened by high debt and declining asset values, focus on deleveraging (paying down debt) rather than spending, which suppresses aggregate demand.
What connection did the IMF suggest between rising inequality and economic demand?
Answer: Rising inequality within Western economies was potentially linked to deflating demand.
Explanation: The IMF proposed a potential correlation between escalating income inequality in Western economies and a subsequent deflationary pressure on aggregate demand.
The 'Minsky Moment' concept relates to financial crises triggered by:
Answer: Prolonged stability leading to increased risk-taking and leverage.
Explanation: The 'Minsky Moment' describes the critical juncture where extended periods of financial stability encourage excessive risk-taking and leverage, ultimately leading to a sharp market correction or crisis.
All nations worldwide experienced the Great Recession with a uniform level of economic hardship.
Answer: False
Explanation: The impact of the Great Recession varied significantly across the globe; developed economies generally suffered severe downturns, while many developing economies, particularly in Asia, experienced substantial growth.
In the U.S., median household wealth increased significantly between 2005 and 2011, while income inequality decreased.
Answer: False
Explanation: Median household wealth in the U.S. fell significantly between 2005 and 2011, and income inequality generally increased during the post-recession recovery period.
The Great Recession had minimal impact on political stability, with no significant shifts towards authoritarianism observed globally.
Answer: False
Explanation: The Great Recession significantly impacted political stability, contributing to democratic backsliding and shifts towards authoritarianism in several nations worldwide.
The IMF noted that the Great Recession was less synchronized globally than the Great Depression due to market integration.
Answer: False
Explanation: The IMF observed that the Great Recession was *more* synchronized globally than the Great Depression, a characteristic attributed to increased market integration.
The IMF observed a surge in long-term unemployment during the Great Recession, reaching levels not seen since the Great Depression.
Answer: True
Explanation: The IMF reported a significant increase in long-term unemployment during the Great Recession, with the proportion of long-term unemployed reaching levels comparable to those during the Great Depression.
In the U.S., anger over bank bailouts contributed to the rise of the Tea Party movement following the recession.
Answer: True
Explanation: Public discontent over bank bailouts following the Great Recession played a role in fueling the rise of political movements such as the Tea Party in the United States.
The COVID-19 recession was primarily caused by financial and housing market collapses, similar to the Great Recession.
Answer: False
Explanation: The COVID-19 recession stemmed primarily from public health measures leading to business closures and economic shutdowns, fundamentally differing from the financial and housing market origins of the Great Recession.
How did the impact of the Great Recession differ between developed and developing economies, according to the source?
Answer: Developed economies faced severe downturns, while many developing economies, particularly in Asia, experienced substantial growth.
Explanation: The Great Recession disproportionately affected developed economies, whereas many developing nations, especially in Asia, demonstrated resilience and achieved economic growth during the same period.
What happened to median household wealth in the U.S. between 2005 and 2011?
Answer: It fell by approximately 35%.
Explanation: Median household wealth in the United States experienced a substantial decline, estimated at approximately 35%, between the years 2005 and 2011.
The Great Recession's impact on political stability included:
Answer: Democratic backsliding and shifts towards authoritarianism in several nations.
Explanation: The economic downturn associated with the Great Recession contributed to political instability, leading to democratic backsliding and the rise of authoritarian tendencies in various countries.
The IMF observed that the percentage of workers unemployed for extended periods during the Great Recession reached levels not seen since:
Answer: The Great Depression
Explanation: The IMF noted that the proportion of long-term unemployed during the Great Recession reached levels not witnessed since the era of the Great Depression.
In the U.S., political discourse following the recession was influenced by anger over bank bailouts, contributing to the rise of which movement?
Answer: The Tea Party movement
Explanation: Public resentment towards bank bailouts following the Great Recession was a significant factor contributing to the emergence and growth of the Tea Party movement in the United States.
How did the cause of the COVID-19 recession differ fundamentally from the Great Recession?
Answer: The COVID-19 recession was caused by public health measures leading to business closures, unlike the Great Recession's financial origins.
Explanation: The fundamental difference lies in their origins: the Great Recession stemmed from financial and housing market instability, whereas the COVID-19 recession was triggered by global public health measures that necessitated widespread economic shutdowns.
According to the source, which of the following countries was NOT noted for avoiding recession during the Great Recession?
Answer: United Kingdom
Explanation: The source lists China, India, and Poland among countries that avoided recession. The United Kingdom, however, experienced a significant economic downturn during the Great Recession.
The IMF observed that the Great Recession was synchronized globally due to market integration, which tends to result in:
Answer: Longer durations and slower recoveries.
Explanation: Global synchronization of recessions, amplified by market integration, tends to result in extended downturns and more protracted recovery periods.
No questions available for this topic.