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A mortgage loan, also known as a hypothec loan in civil law jurisdictions, is a type of loan where the property serves as collateral, but possession is transferred to the lender.
Answer: False
Explanation: In civil law jurisdictions, a hypothec loan, which is a type of mortgage, establishes a security interest in property without transferring possession to the lender. The borrower retains possession of the property while it serves as collateral.
If a borrower defaults on a mortgage loan, the lender's rights over the secured property take priority over the borrower's other creditors.
Answer: True
Explanation: Upon a borrower's default, the mortgage lender's claim on the secured property takes precedence over other creditors. This ensures the lender is repaid in full from the sale of the property before other debts are settled.
The etymological origin of the word 'mortgage' refers to a 'life pledge' because the loan lasts for the borrower's lifetime.
Answer: False
Explanation: The word 'mortgage' derives from the Law French term 'death pledge,' signifying that the pledge 'dies' either upon the borrower's fulfillment of the loan obligation or the lender's repossession of the property through foreclosure, not that the loan lasts for a lifetime.
In the United States, a mortgage loan typically involves a single document that combines the promise to repay and the security interest.
Answer: False
Explanation: In the United States, a mortgage loan typically comprises two distinct legal documents: the mortgage note, which is the borrower's promise to repay the debt, and the security interest (the mortgage document itself), which grants the lender a claim on the property.
The holder of the mortgage document, not the mortgage note, traditionally has the right to foreclose if the two documents are separated in the U.S.
Answer: False
Explanation: In the U.S., if the mortgage note (the promise to repay) and the security interest (the mortgage document) become separated, it is traditionally the holder of the mortgage note who retains the legal right to initiate foreclosure proceedings, not the holder of the mortgage document itself.
In civil law jurisdictions, what is a mortgage loan also known as?
Answer: A hypothec loan
Explanation: In civil law systems, a mortgage loan is commonly referred to as a hypothec loan. This term denotes a security interest in property where the borrower retains possession, distinguishing it from other forms of secured lending.
What is the primary consequence if a borrower defaults on a mortgage loan?
Answer: The lender can initiate foreclosure or repossession to sell the property.
Explanation: The fundamental consequence of a mortgage loan default is the lender's right to initiate foreclosure or repossession proceedings. This legal mechanism allows the lender to seize and sell the secured property to recover the outstanding debt.
From which language and meaning does the word 'mortgage' originate?
Answer: Law French, meaning 'death pledge'
Explanation: The term 'mortgage' has its roots in Law French, specifically from the phrase 'death pledge.' This etymology refers to the termination of the pledge, either through the borrower's successful repayment or the lender's acquisition of the property via foreclosure.
Which of the following entities typically acts as a mortgage lender?
Answer: Financial institutions like banks or credit unions
Explanation: Mortgage lending is predominantly conducted by established financial institutions such as banks, credit unions, and building societies. These entities serve as the primary sources of capital for individuals and businesses seeking to finance real estate purchases.
Which of the following is NOT listed as a basic component of mortgage lending?
Answer: The lender's credit score
Explanation: While the property, borrower, and principal loan amount are fundamental components of mortgage lending, the lender's credit score is not typically listed as a basic component. Instead, the borrower's creditworthiness is a critical factor assessed by the lender.
In the U.S., if the mortgage note and the security interest document are separated, who traditionally has the right to foreclose?
Answer: The holder of the mortgage note.
Explanation: In the U.S. legal framework, the mortgage note, which represents the borrower's promise to repay, is distinct from the security interest (the mortgage document). Traditionally, if these documents are separated, the legal right to initiate foreclosure proceedings rests with the holder of the mortgage note.
Mortgage loans can be funded solely through the banking sector, relying on short-term deposits.
Answer: False
Explanation: Mortgage loans are funded not only through the banking sector, which relies on short-term deposits, but also significantly through capital markets via securitization, where pools of mortgages are converted into bonds for investors.
A common arrangement for mortgage loans involves fixed monthly payments over 10 to 30 years, with the principal gradually paid down through amortization.
Answer: True
Explanation: Mortgage loans are commonly structured with fixed monthly payments over a term of 10 to 30 years, where the principal is systematically reduced over time through a process known as amortization.
In the early years of an amortizing mortgage, a larger portion of each regular payment is allocated to reducing the principal.
Answer: False
Explanation: In the initial phase of an amortizing mortgage, a greater proportion of each regular payment is typically allocated to covering the interest accrued on the loan. The portion dedicated to principal reduction increases as the loan term progresses.
Mortgage curtailment refers to extending a mortgage beyond its scheduled term to reduce monthly payments.
Answer: False
Explanation: Mortgage curtailment involves accelerating the repayment of a mortgage by paying down some or all of the remaining balance ahead of schedule, thereby ending the mortgage earlier than its original term, rather than extending it.
Strong domestic markets for mortgages are crucial in countries with high home ownership demand because few individuals can purchase property outright.
Answer: True
Explanation: Robust domestic mortgage markets are essential in nations with high aspirations for home ownership. This is primarily because the vast majority of individuals lack the substantial savings or liquid capital required to purchase real estate outright, necessitating access to financing.
Lenders typically borrow funds themselves, for example, by taking deposits or issuing bonds, which directly affects the cost of borrowing for their customers.
Answer: True
Explanation: Mortgage lenders operate by acquiring funds, often through deposits or bond issuance, which they then lend out. Consequently, the cost at which these lenders obtain their capital directly influences the interest rates and overall cost of borrowing for their mortgage customers.
Why are strong domestic markets for mortgages considered crucial in countries with high home ownership demand?
Answer: Few individuals possess sufficient savings to purchase property outright.
Explanation: Strong domestic mortgage markets are indispensable in nations where home ownership is highly desired. This is because the substantial capital required for outright property purchase is beyond the immediate means of most individuals, necessitating accessible mortgage financing a critical facilitator.
What are the two primary ways mortgages can be funded?
Answer: Through the banking sector or capital markets via securitization.
Explanation: Mortgages are primarily funded through two distinct channels: the traditional banking sector, which leverages short-term deposits, and capital markets, where mortgages are pooled and securitized into bonds for broader investor participation.
How are mortgage loans generally structured in terms of repayment?
Answer: As long-term loans with periodic payments similar to an annuity.
Explanation: Mortgage loans are typically structured as long-term financial instruments requiring periodic payments that resemble an annuity. These payments, calculated using time value of money principles, systematically reduce both the principal and interest over the loan's duration.
How do mortgage payments typically change over the term of an amortizing loan?
Answer: A larger portion of each payment goes towards principal as the loan progresses.
Explanation: In an amortizing mortgage, the allocation of each payment shifts over time. Initially, a greater share covers interest, but as the loan matures, an increasing proportion is directed towards reducing the principal balance, leading to faster equity buildup.
What is mortgage curtailment?
Answer: Ending a mortgage before its scheduled term by paying off the balance prematurely.
Explanation: Mortgage curtailment refers to the act of prematurely settling a mortgage loan, either partially or in full, before its scheduled maturity date. This strategy allows borrowers to reduce their total interest paid and achieve debt-free homeownership sooner.
Mortgage underwriting primarily involves assessing the property's market value, with less emphasis on the applicant's financial information.
Answer: False
Explanation: Mortgage underwriting involves a comprehensive assessment of both the applicant's financial information, including income, employment, and credit history, and the appraised value of the property, giving equal emphasis to both aspects of risk.
A higher loan-to-value ratio (LTV) indicates a lower risk for a mortgage loan because the borrower has more equity in the property.
Answer: False
Explanation: A higher loan-to-value (LTV) ratio indicates a greater risk for a mortgage loan, as it implies the borrower has less equity in the property. This increases the risk that the property's value may not cover the outstanding loan balance in the event of foreclosure.
Reserve assets are funds a borrower has available to cover housing costs for one or more months, which lenders may require to mitigate risk.
Answer: True
Explanation: Lenders often require borrowers to demonstrate reserve assets, which are funds available to cover housing expenses for several months. This requirement serves to mitigate the lender's risk in scenarios such as job loss or other unforeseen income disruptions for the borrower.
During the mortgage underwriting process, applicants are advised to open new credit lines to demonstrate financial activity.
Answer: False
Explanation: During the mortgage underwriting process, applicants are generally advised to avoid opening new credit lines or making significant changes to their financial profile. Such actions can negatively impact their creditworthiness and potentially jeopardize loan approval.
The value of a property for mortgage lending can be determined by the transaction value, appraised value, or an estimated value from the lender's internal assessments.
Answer: True
Explanation: For mortgage lending purposes, a property's value can be established through multiple methods, including its transaction value (purchase price), an independent appraisal by a licensed professional, or an internal estimation conducted by the lender, particularly in contexts where formal appraisals are not mandatory.
What is the purpose of mortgage underwriting during the loan approval process?
Answer: To verify the applicant's financial information and assess lending risk.
Explanation: Mortgage underwriting is a critical phase in loan approval, designed to meticulously verify an applicant's financial data, including income, employment, and credit history. Its primary purpose is to thoroughly assess the inherent lending risk before committing capital.
What advice is given to applicants during the mortgage underwriting process to avoid loan denial?
Answer: To maintain the same employment and avoid using or opening new credit.
Explanation: During mortgage underwriting, applicants are strongly advised to maintain stable employment and refrain from initiating new credit accounts or making significant changes to existing credit. Such stability minimizes perceived risk and enhances the likelihood of loan approval.
What does the loan-to-value ratio (LTV) primarily indicate about a mortgage loan's riskiness?
Answer: The size of the loan relative to the value of the property.
Explanation: The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio serves as a critical indicator of a mortgage loan's risk profile. It quantifies the proportion of the loan amount relative to the appraised value of the property, with higher LTVs generally correlating with increased risk for the lender.
Which of the following is NOT a common measure of creditworthiness used in mortgage lending?
Answer: Borrower's preferred vacation destination
Explanation: In mortgage lending, creditworthiness is rigorously assessed using objective financial metrics such as payment-to-income ratio, debt-to-income ratio, net worth, and credit scores. A borrower's preferred vacation destination is irrelevant to this financial evaluation.
The two basic types of amortized mortgage loans are the fixed-rate mortgage (FRM) and the interest-only mortgage.
Answer: False
Explanation: The two fundamental types of amortized mortgage loans are the fixed-rate mortgage (FRM) and the adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM), not the interest-only mortgage, which has a distinct repayment structure.
In a fixed-rate mortgage, the interest rate remains constant for the entire term of the loan, transferring interest rate risk from the lender to the borrower.
Answer: False
Explanation: In a fixed-rate mortgage, the interest rate remains constant, which means the lender bears the interest rate risk, not the borrower. It is the adjustable-rate mortgage that transfers interest rate risk from the lender to the borrower.
A foreign currency mortgage benefits the borrower by eliminating currency risk, as the lender lends in a stable foreign currency.
Answer: False
Explanation: A foreign currency mortgage does not eliminate currency risk for the borrower; rather, it transfers this risk to them. If the borrower's domestic currency depreciates against the foreign currency in which the loan is denominated, the cost of repayment in domestic currency terms will increase.
An interest-only mortgage requires the principal amount to be repaid periodically throughout the loan term, along with interest.
Answer: False
Explanation: In an interest-only mortgage, the borrower makes regular payments solely covering the interest accrued on the loan. The principal amount remains outstanding throughout the loan term and is typically repaid in full at maturity, often through a separate investment vehicle.
Investment-backed mortgages are considered lower risk because the separate investment plan guarantees sufficient returns to clear the debt at maturity.
Answer: False
Explanation: Investment-backed mortgages are considered higher risk because the repayment of the principal at maturity is contingent upon the performance of a separate investment plan. There is no guarantee that this investment will generate sufficient returns to cover the outstanding debt.
An interest-only lifetime mortgage is a type of equity release scheme where the principal balance remains level for the borrower's life, and only interest is paid monthly.
Answer: True
Explanation: An interest-only lifetime mortgage is indeed an equity release scheme designed for older borrowers. In this arrangement, the borrower pays only the monthly interest, ensuring the principal balance does not increase over their lifetime.
Reverse mortgages require older borrowers to make periodic principal and interest payments, which are then added to the loan balance.
Answer: False
Explanation: Reverse mortgages are designed for older borrowers and do not require periodic principal and interest payments. Instead, the interest accrues and is added to the principal, causing the loan balance to increase over time, with repayment typically deferred until the borrower's death or sale of the home.
A balloon loan in the U.S. requires monthly payments calculated over the full loan term, with no large final payment.
Answer: False
Explanation: A balloon loan in the U.S. is characterized by monthly payments calculated over a longer term, but with a significant outstanding principal balance, known as a 'balloon payment,' becoming due at an earlier, specified point in the loan's life.
Which of the following is a broad factor defining mortgage loan types?
Answer: The interest rate (fixed or variable).
Explanation: A fundamental factor differentiating mortgage loan types is the interest rate structure, specifically whether it is fixed for the entire term or adjustable based on market indices. This choice significantly impacts the borrower's payment stability and interest rate risk exposure.
How does an adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) differ from a fixed-rate mortgage (FRM) regarding interest rate risk?
Answer: An ARM transfers interest rate risk from the lender to the borrower.
Explanation: An adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) fundamentally differs from a fixed-rate mortgage (FRM) in its allocation of interest rate risk. With an ARM, the risk of fluctuating interest rates is transferred from the lender to the borrower, as the rate adjusts periodically based on market conditions.
What defines a 'standard' or 'conforming' mortgage in the United States?
Answer: A mortgage that meets the rules of government-sponsored entities like Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac.
Explanation: In the United States, a 'conforming' mortgage is specifically defined as one that adheres to the underwriting guidelines and loan limits established by government-sponsored enterprises such as Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac. This classification facilitates their securitization and liquidity in the secondary market.
What risk does a borrower take on with a foreign currency mortgage?
Answer: The risk of their domestic currency depreciating against the foreign one.
Explanation: A borrower undertaking a foreign currency mortgage assumes significant currency risk. Should their domestic currency weaken relative to the foreign currency in which the loan is denominated, the cost of servicing and repaying the debt, when converted back to their local currency, will increase.
In an interest-only mortgage, how is the principal typically repaid at maturity?
Answer: Through a separate investment plan like an endowment policy.
Explanation: For an interest-only mortgage, the principal is not amortized over the loan term. Instead, it is typically repaid in a lump sum at maturity, often facilitated by a separate investment vehicle, such as an endowment policy or an Individual Savings Account (ISA), which is expected to mature with sufficient funds.
Why are investment-backed mortgages considered higher risk?
Answer: Their ability to clear the debt depends on the separate investment plan's returns.
Explanation: Investment-backed mortgages carry elevated risk because the ultimate repayment of the principal at the loan's maturity is directly contingent upon the performance of an associated, separate investment plan. Insufficient returns from this investment could leave the borrower with a shortfall.
What is a key characteristic of reverse mortgages, lifetime mortgages, or equity release mortgages?
Answer: The interest is added to the principal, increasing the debt over time.
Explanation: A defining feature of reverse mortgages, lifetime mortgages, or equity release mortgages is that borrowers do not make regular principal or interest payments. Instead, the accrued interest is added to the outstanding principal, causing the total debt to grow over the loan's duration.
What is a 'balloon payment' in the context of a U.S. partial amortization loan?
Answer: A large outstanding principal balance due at an earlier, specified point.
Explanation: In a U.S. partial amortization loan, a 'balloon payment' refers to a substantial outstanding principal balance that becomes due at a predetermined point prior to the full amortization of the loan. This structure typically involves lower regular payments followed by a large final payment.
Which type of specialized loan covers several properties simultaneously, often used by builders?
Answer: Blanket loan
Explanation: A blanket loan is a specialized mortgage product frequently utilized by builders and developers. It is designed to cover multiple properties simultaneously, offering a single financing solution for a portfolio of real estate assets.
Mortgage insurance is primarily designed to protect the mortgagor (borrower) against financial losses if they default on the loan.
Answer: False
Explanation: Mortgage insurance is fundamentally designed to protect the lender (mortgagee) from potential financial losses that may arise if the borrower (mortgagor) defaults on their loan obligations. It acts as a risk mitigation tool for the lending institution.
Mortgage insurance can often be discontinued once the loan-to-value ratio falls below 80% due to property appreciation or principal repayment.
Answer: True
Explanation: Mortgage insurance is typically required for loans with a high loan-to-value (LTV) ratio. However, it can often be discontinued once the LTV falls below 80%, a threshold achieved either through consistent principal repayment or an increase in the property's market value.
Mortgage insurance benefits the repossessing authority by guaranteeing they will recover the full market value of the property upon sale.
Answer: False
Explanation: Mortgage insurance serves as a hedge for the repossessing authority, protecting them against losses if the property sells for less than its full market value after default. It does not, however, guarantee the recovery of the full market value, but rather mitigates the financial impact of a potential shortfall.
What is the primary purpose of mortgage insurance?
Answer: To protect the lender against financial losses if the borrower defaults.
Explanation: The fundamental purpose of mortgage insurance is to safeguard the lender (mortgagee) from potential financial losses that may arise if the borrower (mortgagor) defaults on their loan obligations. It acts as a risk mitigation tool for the lending institution.
Under what condition can mortgage insurance often be discontinued?
Answer: Once the loan-to-value ratio falls below 80%.
Explanation: Mortgage insurance is typically required for loans with higher risk profiles, often indicated by a loan-to-value (LTV) ratio exceeding 80%. Borrowers can often discontinue this insurance once their LTV ratio drops below this threshold, either through principal payments or property value appreciation.
What benefit does mortgage insurance provide to the repossessing authority?
Answer: It acts as a hedge if they recover less than the full market value when selling the asset.
Explanation: For the repossessing authority, mortgage insurance functions as a financial hedge. It mitigates the risk of incurring losses if the foreclosed property is sold for less than its outstanding debt or fair market value, thereby facilitating a quicker disposition of the asset.
Government regulation in mortgage lending is limited to direct legal requirements and does not extend to sponsoring entities.
Answer: False
Explanation: Government regulation in mortgage lending extends beyond direct legal requirements to include indirect intervention through the regulation of financial institutions and markets, direct lending by state-owned banks, and the sponsorship of various entities to promote lending and homeownership.
The U.S. government insures reverse mortgages through the Federal Housing Administration (FHA) via the Home Equity Conversion Mortgage (HECM) program.
Answer: True
Explanation: The U.S. government, specifically through the Federal Housing Administration (FHA), plays a crucial role in the reverse mortgage market by insuring these loans via the Home Equity Conversion Mortgage (HECM) program, providing a layer of protection for both lenders and borrowers.
A UN study from 2004 found that German Bausparkassen reported nominal interest rates of about 6% per annum over 40 years.
Answer: True
Explanation: According to a 2004 UN study comparing international mortgage systems, German Bausparkassen indeed reported nominal interest rates of approximately 6% per annum over a 40-year term, in addition to administrative and service fees.
The U.S. federal government has created entities like Ginnie Mae and Fannie Mae to promote mortgage lending and home ownership.
Answer: True
Explanation: The U.S. federal government has actively shaped the mortgage market by establishing government-sponsored entities such as Ginnie Mae, Fannie Mae, and Freddie Mac. These entities are instrumental in promoting mortgage lending, facilitating construction, and expanding home ownership opportunities.
The Canada Mortgage and Housing Corporation (CMHC) was established in 1946 to provide mortgage loan insurance and housing research.
Answer: True
Explanation: The Canada Mortgage and Housing Corporation (CMHC), established by the federal government in 1946, serves as Canada's national housing agency. Its mandate includes providing mortgage loan insurance, managing mortgage-backed securities, and conducting housing research to support homeownership and address housing needs.
The most common mortgage type in Canada is the 30-year fixed-rate open mortgage, similar to the U.S.
Answer: False
Explanation: Contrary to the U.S. market, where 30-year fixed-rate open mortgages are common, the most prevalent mortgage type in Canada is the five-year fixed-rate closed mortgage, reflecting distinct market practices and regulatory frameworks.
The Canadian mortgage stress test, introduced in 2016, generally increased the maximum approved mortgage amount for borrowers.
Answer: False
Explanation: The Canadian mortgage stress test, implemented in 2016, was designed to cool real estate prices by requiring borrowers to qualify at a higher 'stress rate.' This measure generally resulted in a reduction of the maximum approved mortgage amount for borrowers, rather than an increase.
The UK mortgage industry was traditionally dominated by banks, but building societies have increased their market share since the 1970s.
Answer: False
Explanation: The UK mortgage industry was historically dominated by building societies. However, since the 1970s, their market share has significantly declined, with banks and other financial institutions increasing their presence in the sector.
In the UK, the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) oversees the financial probity of lenders, while the Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA) regulates customer-facing aspects.
Answer: False
Explanation: In the UK, the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) is responsible for regulating the customer-facing aspects of the residential mortgage sector, ensuring fair treatment of consumers. Conversely, the Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA) oversees the financial soundness and probity of lenders.
In Malaysia, Islamic home financing types like Bai' Bithaman Ajil involve the bank buying a property and reselling it to the borrower at a higher, predetermined price.
Answer: True
Explanation: Islamic home financing in Malaysia, such as Bai' Bithaman Ajil, operates on the principle of the bank purchasing the property at market price and then reselling it to the borrower at a higher, predetermined price, which is subsequently repaid through installments, adhering to Sharia principles.
What is the U.S. government program that insures reverse mortgages?
Answer: Home Equity Conversion Mortgage (HECM)
Explanation: The U.S. government, through the Federal Housing Administration (FHA), insures reverse mortgages under the Home Equity Conversion Mortgage (HECM) program. This program enables eligible older homeowners to convert a portion of their home equity into cash, with various disbursement options.
According to a 2004 UN study, what were the average fixed-rate mortgage interest rates in the US in the 1980s?
Answer: In the tens and twenties
Explanation: A 2004 UN study indicated that average fixed-rate mortgage interest rates in the United States during the 1980s were notably high, typically ranging in the tens and twenties, reflecting a different economic and monetary policy environment compared to later periods.
Which of the following is NOT a major financial crisis centered on the U.S. mortgage sector mentioned in the text?
Answer: The dot-com bubble burst of 2000
Explanation: The provided text identifies several significant financial crises rooted in the U.S. mortgage sector, including the National Mortgage Crisis of the 1930s, the savings and loan crisis of the 1980s and 1990s, and the subprime mortgage crisis of 2007. The dot-com bubble burst of 2000, while a major economic event, was not centered on the mortgage sector.
What is the primary purpose of the Canada Mortgage and Housing Corporation (CMHC)?
Answer: To provide mortgage loan insurance and housing research.
Explanation: The Canada Mortgage and Housing Corporation (CMHC) serves as Canada's national housing agency with a core mandate to provide mortgage loan insurance, facilitate mortgage-backed securities, develop housing policy, and conduct research to support the country's housing objectives.
What is the most common mortgage type in Canada?
Answer: The five-year fixed-rate closed mortgage.
Explanation: In Canada, the five-year fixed-rate closed mortgage is the most prevalent type of home financing. This contrasts with other markets, such as the U.S., where longer-term fixed-rate mortgages are more common, reflecting distinct national market preferences and regulatory structures.
What was the general impact of the mortgage stress test introduced in Canada in 2016?
Answer: It generally lowered the maximum approved mortgage amount for borrowers.
Explanation: The mortgage stress test implemented in Canada in 2016 aimed to enhance financial stability by requiring borrowers to qualify at a higher hypothetical interest rate. Its primary effect was a general reduction in the maximum mortgage amount for which borrowers could be approved, thereby moderating housing market activity.
Which regulatory body in the UK oversees the customer-facing aspects of the residential mortgage sector?
Answer: The Financial Conduct Authority (FCA)
Explanation: In the United Kingdom, the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA) is the primary regulatory body responsible for overseeing the customer-facing operations within the residential mortgage sector. Its mandate includes ensuring market integrity and protecting consumers.
How does mortgage loan financing in much of Europe often differ from the United States?
Answer: Europe relies less on securitizing mortgages and more on government guarantees and covered bonds.
Explanation: Mortgage loan financing in many European countries diverges from the U.S. model by placing less emphasis on securitization. Instead, European markets frequently leverage formal government guarantees, covered bonds (such as German Pfandbriefe), and retail deposits as primary funding mechanisms.
What are the two main categories of mortgages in Malaysia?
Answer: Conventional home loans and Islamic home loans.
Explanation: In Malaysia, the mortgage market is broadly divided into two principal categories: conventional home loans, which operate with interest-based financing, and Islamic home loans, which adhere to Sharia Law principles that prohibit interest (riba).